12 to 14 August 2026 Current Affairs – English

This is the current affairs 12 to 14 August 2026. Here are questions and answers of daily current affairs for better preparation of competitive exams for government jobs.

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1. Which became the first Arab country to abolish the death penalty?

a. Egypt
b. Jordan
c. Lebanon
d. Morocco

Answer: c. Lebanon

– The Parliament of Lebanon approved a law on 13 August 2026.
– Under this, life imprisonment with hard labor will be given in place of the death penalty.
– According to Amnesty International’s global classification, more than 110 countries have abolished the death penalty for all crimes.
– In Lebanon, there had been an unofficial moratorium on executions since January 2004. However, courts continued to sentence people to death.
– Members of Hezbollah’s parliamentary bloc and the Free Patriotic Movement opposed the abolition of the death penalty and walked out of Parliament.
– Those opposing the move argued that abolishing the death penalty could benefit people convicted of serious crimes.

Several European countries have abolished the death penalty
– Countries such as France, Germany, Italy, and Spain have completely abolished the death penalty.
– The UK also abolished it for ordinary crimes decades ago.

Africa and Latin America are also moving forward
– Several African countries such as Chad, Sierra Leone, Zambia, Ghana, and the Central African Republic have abolished the death penalty.
– There has also been a long-term decline in cases of executions in Latin America.
– Countries such as Argentina, Brazil, Colombia, and Mexico have abolished the death penalty for ordinary crimes. However, some countries still have provisions for it in certain cases under their legal systems.
– Australia and New Zealand also completely abolished the death penalty decades ago.

Three-fourths of countries have abolished the death penalty
– According to Amnesty International’s report on the death penalty and executions, by December 2025, nearly three-fourths of the countries in the world had abolished the death penalty in law or in practice.
– Some countries have abolished the death penalty in practice but have retained it in law. However, they have not carried out an execution for at least 10 years.
– Some countries have abolished the death penalty only for “ordinary crimes.” This means that the death penalty may still be valid for certain special crimes, such as some offenses under military law or crimes committed under exceptional circumstances.

Increase in executions
– Despite the global decline in the use of the death penalty, executions increased rapidly in 2025.
– A total of 2,707 executions were recorded globally in 2025, which was 78% higher than the 1,518 recorded in 2024.
– The main reason for this increase was Iran, where Amnesty recorded at least 2,159 executions in 2025.
– This was more than double the 972 executions recorded in 2024.
– The figures do not include executions carried out in China because China still classifies execution-related statistics as state secrets.

Lebanon
– Capital: Beirut
– President: Joseph Aoun
– Prime Minister: Nawaf Salam
– Population: 5.89 million
– Currency: Lebanese Pound
– Language: Standard Arabic
– Neighboring countries: Syria and Israel.

—- Question for Prelims Exam —-

Q. Consider the following statements in the context of recent developments related to the abolition of the death penalty and the global scenario:

1) Lebanon has become the first Arab country to abolish the death penalty.
2) According to the provisions of the new law, life imprisonment with hard labor will be given in place of the death penalty.
3) According to Amnesty International’s report, there was a sharp decline in cases of executions globally in 2025.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2

Explanation:
– Statement 1 is correct: After the law was passed by the Parliament of Lebanon on 13 August 2026, Lebanon became the first Arab country to abolish the death penalty.
– Statement 2 is correct: Under this new law passed by Lebanon, life imprisonment with hard labor has been provided in place of the death penalty.
– Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Amnesty International’s report, instead of a decline, executions increased sharply by 78% globally in 2025 (2,707 in 2025 compared to 1,518 in 2024), mainly due to the increase in Iran.

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2. Name the Tata Sons Chairman who has resigned from his position and will step down in February 2027.

a. Noel Tata
b. N. Chandrasekaran
c. Rajesh Gopinathan
d. Narayana Murthy

Answer: b. N. Chandrasekaran

– An agreement could not be reached with Tata Trusts regarding Chandrasekaran’s third term.
– Differences over heavy investment in new businesses, their performance, and the future of Tata Sons became major reasons behind this decision.
– However, he will remain in office until February 2027.

Who is N. Chandrasekaran?
– N. Chandrasekaran was born on 2 June 1963 in Mohanur village, Namakkal, Tamil Nadu.
– He obtained a Bachelor’s degree in Applied Sciences from the Coimbatore Institute of Technology.
– In 1986, he completed a Master of Computer Applications (MCA) from the Regional Engineering College, Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu.
– He started his career in the Tata Group in 1987.
– CEO and MD of Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) since 2009.
– Chairman of Tata Sons since 2017.
– Under his leadership, the Tata Group expanded significantly across various industries such as technology, automobiles, steel, aviation, defense, electronics, and semiconductors.

Awards
– Padma Bhushan (2022)
– Chevalier de la Légion d’Honneur (2023)
– Honorary Knight Commander (2026)
– Best CEO by Business Today (2013-2014)
– ‘Business Leader of the Year’ (2016)

This is how the new Chairman will be selected
– In the process of selecting the Chairman of Tata Sons, the selection committee first considers the candidates.
– The committee includes members nominated by Tata Trusts, one member of the Tata Sons Board, and an independent external member.
– The committee recommends the candidate’s name to the Tata Sons Board.
– The Board makes the final appointment decision after considering the candidate’s qualifications and the needs of the Group.
– If the existing Chairman is to be continued, the decision regarding the extension of his term is also taken through the same process.

About Tata Sons
– Tata Sons (Tata Sons Private Limited) is the principal holding company and major promoter of the Tata Group.
– According to the official records of the Tata Group, it has 31 major companies under it, while including small and large companies, the number is more than 100.
– It controls the operations of one of India’s largest and oldest business houses.
– Established: 1868 by Jamsetji Tata.
– Headquarters: Bombay House, Mumbai
– Ownership: Approximately 66% of Tata Sons is held by ‘Tata Trusts’ (philanthropic charitable trusts such as Sir Dorabji Tata Trust {28%} and Sir Ratan Tata Trust {24%}). This directly means that a major portion of the dividends earned by Tata Sons is spent on education, healthcare, and social welfare activities.
– Shapoorji Pallonji: 18.4%: The business group of the Mistry family. It is the largest single shareholder in Tata Sons after Tata Trusts.
– Tata Group’s operating companies: 13% – 16%: Various listed companies of the Tata Group hold shares in Tata Sons, such as TCS, Tata Motors, Tata Steel, and Tata Chemicals.
– Tata family and others: 2.6%: Individual members of the Tata family (such as trusts/family members of Ratan Tata) and some other shareholders. For example, Ratan Tata’s brother Noel Tata holds 1 percent.

About Tata Trusts
– Noel Tata is the Chairman of ‘Tata Trusts’.
– Tata Trusts holds 66% ownership in Tata Sons.
– In this regard, although these 66% shares are not personally held in his name, as Chairman of the Trusts, he has the most powerful voting and control rights in the major decisions of Tata Sons.
– Noel Tata has a 1% personal stake, but as Chairman, he represents the 66% controlling stake held by Tata Trusts.

—- Question for Prelims Exam —-

Q. Consider the following statements regarding Tata Sons and related corporate developments:

1) N. Chandrasekaran has resigned from the post of Chairman of Tata Sons and will step down in February 2027.
2) The majority stake in Tata Sons (approximately 66%) is held by ‘Tata Trusts’, which are charitable trusts associated with philanthropic activities.
3) Ratan Tata’s half-brother Noel Tata is currently the Chairman of ‘Tata Trusts’, representing the 66% controlling stake in Tata Sons.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
– Statement 1 is correct: N. Chandrasekaran has resigned from the post of Chairman of Tata Sons and will step down after remaining in office until February 2027.
– Statement 2 is correct: Approximately 66% ownership in Tata Sons is held by philanthropic charitable trusts (such as Sir Dorabji Tata Trust and Sir Ratan Tata Trust).
– Statement 3 is correct: Ratan Tata’s half-brother Noel Tata is the Chairman of ‘Tata Trusts’. Although he personally holds only a 1% stake in Tata Sons, as Chairman of Tata Trusts, he represents the 66% controlling stake.

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3. Which state received approval for Asia’s first desert zoological park and desert-themed night safari?

a. Gujarat
b. Rajasthan
c. Assam
d. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: a. Gujarat (Deesa, Banaskantha district)

About the Desert Zoological Park and Desert-Themed Night Safari
Location: Deesa, Banaskantha district, Gujarat
Total area: 103 hectares (government land)
Estimated cost: ₹542.14 crore
Total species: Approximately 83 species
Total animals: Around 2,700 native and exotic animals and birds

– Asia’s first desert-themed night safari and zoo will be built in the city of Deesa in Gujarat’s Banaskantha district.
– The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) approved it in August 2026.
– The biggest attraction of the park will be an international-standard night safari, where tourists will be able to see wildlife that is active at night from close range.
– The park will include a day zoo and 5 dedicated night safari enclosures, where tourists will be able to see nocturnal animals even after sunset.
– The park has been designed keeping the desert ecosystem in mind.
– Natural dry landscapes will be developed here.

Main attractions and animals in the park
1) Indian species: Indian wildlife adapted to arid and desert ecosystems:
– Mammals and predators: Asiatic lion, leopard, Indian wild ass (Wild Ass), chinkara, blackbuck, caracal, desert fox, sloth bear, Indian wolf, striped hyena, and jackal.
– Small animals: Porcupine, wild rabbit, and hedgehog.

2) International species (African and Australian)
– From Africa: Angolan giraffe, Grevy’s zebra, scimitar oryx, African kudu, springbok, African cheetah, African lion, meerkat, fennec fox, and ostrich.
– From Australia: Kangaroo, emu, and wallaby.

3) Special zones
– Reptile safari and reptile house
– Rainforest biome and aviary (for birds)
– Aquarium and butterfly park

Reason for selecting the location
– Natural sand dunes: They provide an experience of a real desert environment (Arid Landscape).
– Proximity to the Banas River: Balance between water source and natural habitat.
– Excellent connectivity: Better connectivity through road and rail routes.

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4. Seven mahouts/forest personnel from which national park were honored with the ‘Gaj Gaurav Puraskar’ in 2026?

a. Gorumara National Park (West Bengal)
b. Jaldapara National Park (West Bengal)
c. Jim Corbett (Uttarakhand)
d. Dudhwa National Park (Uttar Pradesh)

Answer: b. Jaldapara National Park (West Bengal)

– The awards were presented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change on 13 August 2026 on the occasion of World Elephant Day in Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh).
– This honor was given to individuals and mahouts who have done outstanding work in elephant conservation, management, and wildlife rescue during floods and disasters.

Gaj Gaurav Puraskar
– It is a national honor given by the Government of India to mahouts, frontline forest personnel, and organizations for outstanding work in elephant conservation, their care, and prevention of human-elephant conflict.

Award Winners – Contribution
1. Bikash Khadia: Contributed to safely evacuating 6 domesticated elephants during floods
2. Rajiv Oraon: Contributed to rescuing 6 domesticated elephants during floods
3. Ajibul Haque: Helped relocate 13 displaced wild rhinos to a safe place
4. Ajit Gabur: Contributed to rhino rescue operations
5. Montaj Alam: Contributed to rhino rescue operations
6. Amsur Khadia: Contributed to rhino rescue operations
7. Dilip Munda: Contributed to rhino rescue operations

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5. Which country emerged as the overall champion of the 2026 Commonwealth Fencing Championships?

a. South Africa
b. Cyprus
c. Nigeria
d. India

Answer: d. India

– India won the overall championship title for the first time at the Commonwealth Fencing Championships in Lagos, Nigeria.
– The championship was held from 9 August 2026 to 14 August.
– Indian fencers won a total of 35 medals in the Senior and Under-23 categories.
– India also received the Wilkinson Sword Trophy.
– It is awarded by the Commonwealth Fencing Federation for the best overall performance in the championship.
– India won this trophy for the first time.
– India performed strongly in all three weapons: sabre, épée, and foil.

How many medals did India win
Gold 13
Silver 08
Bronze 14

Commonwealth Fencing Championship?
– It is a special international fencing competition held among Commonwealth countries.
– It is organized by the Commonwealth Fencing Federation.
– After fencing was removed from the main Commonwealth Games, this competition was first started in 1974.
– The competition is held every 4 years.
– It includes individual and team events in all three major types of fencing—Foil, Épée, and Sabre.

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6. Which state banned tobacco products (chewable/edible) for one year?

a. Karnataka
b. Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: a. Karnataka

– This ban applies only to chewable/edible tobacco products.
– The ban has been implemented under Section 30(2)(a) of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
– The Karnataka Food Safety Department has issued this one-year ban. It covers only those products that are considered food products (Oral Consumption), such as gutkha and pan masala.
– COTPA (2003): Cigarettes and bidis are regulated under the ‘Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA)’, and cannot be banned under food safety laws.

What is included under the scope of the ban?
– Gutkha
– Pan masala containing tobacco or nicotine
– Such pouches/sachets that are sold separately and prepared to be mixed and consumed.

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7. Which former Chief Justice of India (CJI) was appointed by Russia as an arbitrator in the investment treaty dispute filed by Ukraine’s state-owned bank, Oschadbank?

a. Sanjiv Khanna
b. D. Y. Chandrachud
c. U. U. Lalit
d. B. R. Gavai

Answer: b. D. Y. Chandrachud

– The dispute is being heard by a three-member arbitration tribunal under the 1998 bilateral investment treaty between Ukraine and Russia.
– Costa Rican arbitrator and former Trade Minister Dyala Jiménez was chosen by both sides as the President of the tribunal.
– Oschadbank had appointed Professor Stavros Brekoulakis of the National University of Singapore.
– While D. Y. Chandrachud was appointed by Russia.

Case related to the 2022 Russia-Ukraine dispute
– The dispute relates to assets and operations that Oschadbank says it lost in the Donetsk, Luhansk, Kherson, and Zaporizhzhia regions after Russia’s attack on Ukraine in 2022.
– Oschadbank is a state-owned bank of Ukraine.

D. Y. Chandrachud
– D. Y. Chandrachud retired from the Supreme Court of India on 10 November 2024.
– He was elevated as a judge of the Supreme Court on 13 May 2016.
– After the retirement of CJI U. U. Lalit, he became the 50th Chief Justice of India on 9 November 2022.

—- Question for Prelims Exam —-

Q. Consider the following statements in the context of international arbitration developments and former Chief Justice D. Y. Chandrachud:

1) Former Chief Justice of India (CJI) D. Y. Chandrachud has been appointed by Russia as an arbitrator in the ongoing investment treaty dispute with Ukraine’s state-owned bank ‘Oschadbank’.
2) The dispute is being heard by a three-member tribunal constituted under the 1998 Ukraine-Russia Bilateral Investment Treaty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
– Statement 1 is correct: Russia has appointed former CJI D. Y. Chandrachud as its arbitrator in the investment treaty dispute filed by Ukraine’s state-owned Oschadbank over the loss of its assets after the 2022 war.
– Statement 2 is correct: The case is being heard by a three-member international arbitration tribunal constituted under the bilateral investment treaty signed between Ukraine and Russia in 1998, chaired by Costa Rica’s Dyala Jiménez.

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8. ‘Triumph of the Indian Republic: My Life, My Struggles’ is the autobiography of which former President, launched by PM Modi?

a. Pranab Mukherjee
b. Ram Nath Kovind
c. Pratibha Patil
d. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: b. Ram Nath Kovind

– Narendra Modi launched the book at Vigyan Bhavan in New Delhi.
– The PM said that Ram Nath Kovind has continued to work for the country even after leaving the office of President.
– He is also the Chairman of the JPC formed on ‘One Nation, One Election’.
– This autobiography focuses on the political journey and experiences of Ram Nath Kovind.

Ram Nath Kovind
– Born on 1 October 1945 in Parौंkh village of Kanpur Dehat district, Uttar Pradesh.
– Obtained degrees in Commerce (B.Com) and Law (LL.B.) from Kanpur University.
– Served as Senior Standing Counsel for the Central Government in the Supreme Court.
– He is an Indian politician.
– Appointed Governor of Bihar on 8 August 2015.
– Became the 14th President of the country on 25 July 2017.

—- Question for Prelims Exam —-

Q. Consider the following statements in the context of former President Ram Nath Kovind and his recently released book:

1) ‘Triumph of the Indian Republic: My Life, My Struggles’ is the autobiography of former President Ram Nath Kovind, which was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
2) Ram Nath Kovind had served as the Governor of Bihar before becoming the 14th President of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
– Statement 1 is correct: ‘Triumph of the Indian Republic: My Life, My Struggles’ is the autobiography of Ram Nath Kovind, the 14th President of India, which was officially launched recently by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Vigyan Bhavan in New Delhi.
– Statement 2 is correct: Before becoming the 14th President of India in 2017 (25 July 2017), Ram Nath Kovind was appointed Governor of Bihar in August 2015.

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9. The former president of which country, Bashar al-Assad, and his younger brother were sentenced to death in cases involving the killing of hundreds of thousands of people?

a. Türkiye
b. Iran
c. Syria
d. Israel

Answer: c. Syria

– A Syrian court sentenced former President Bashar al-Assad and his younger brother Maher al-Assad to death.
– Both were convicted in cases involving the killing and atrocities against millions of people during the civil war.
– In the same case, Bashar al-Assad’s maternal cousin Atif Najib was also sentenced to death.
– The 60-year-old former President Bashar and his brother had taken refuge in Russia.
– The Putin government had granted them asylum.
– Bashar al-Assad’s father, Hafez al-Assad, had also been President of Syria.

Civil war broke out after Atif’s orders
– Atif Najib had served as a Brigadier General in the Syrian Army.
– He was accused of ordering a harsh crackdown on protesters.
– A civil war began in the country and continued until 2024.
– Around five lakh people were killed in it.

Government fell despite support from Russia and Iran
– During the civil war, Bashar al-Assad’s government received support from Russia, Iran, and Hezbollah.
– In 2024, continuous Israeli attacks weakened Hezbollah and Iran-backed groups.
– On the other hand, Russia was involved in the Ukraine war.
– Taking advantage of this, rebel groups supported by Türkiye launched a major attack from Idlib province in northwestern Syria.
– They reached the capital Damascus on 8 December 2024.
– Bashar al-Assad fled to Russia with his family.
– His government fell.
– Rebel leader Ahmed al-Sharaa took control of Syria.
– He began an investigation into the killings and atrocities committed during the Assad regime.
– Under the same investigation, this verdict has now been delivered against Assad, Maher, and Atif.
– Bashar al-Assad belongs to the Ba’ath Socialist Party.
– He became President in 2000.
– He opposed the US attack on Iraq.

Syria
– Capital: Damascus
– President: Ahmed al-Sharaa, also known as Abu Mohammad al-Julani
– Currency: Syrian Pound

—- Question for Prelims Exam —-

Q. Consider the following statements in the context of recent political and judicial developments in Syria:

1) A Syrian court has sentenced former President Bashar al-Assad and his brother Maher al-Assad to death for cases involving deaths and atrocities committed during the civil war.
2) After being removed from power, Bashar al-Assad is currently being held by the International Criminal Court (ICC) in The Hague.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
– Statement 1 is correct: A Syrian court has sentenced former President Bashar al-Assad, his brother Maher al-Assad, and his relative Atif Najib to death after finding them guilty of the killing and atrocities against millions of people during the civil war.
– Statement 2 is incorrect: After the coup in December 2024, Bashar al-Assad is not being held in The Hague; rather, he is taking refuge in Russia with his family (the Putin government has granted him asylum).

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10. In which South American country did a magnitude 7.4 earthquake occur in August 2026, resulting in the deaths of over 200 people and necessitating the declaration of a state of emergency?

a. Venezuela
b. Guyana
c. Chile
d. Colombia

Answer: d. Colombia

– According to the United States Geological Survey (USGS), the earthquake in Colombia occurred at around 7:34 a.m. on the morning of 10 August 2026.
– Its epicenter was in the Chocó region (near San José del Palmar).
– The earthquake was at a depth of 107 kilometers.

– 86 buildings collapsed across the country, while more than 1,500 houses were damaged.
– Around 224 people had died by 12 August.
– 18 health centers and 52 schools were also damaged.
– Operations at 7 airports were suspended.
– In the city of Pereira, with a population of around 500,000, 60 people alone died.
– The city is less than 64 kilometers from the epicenter.
– Strong tremors were also felt in Venezuela, Ecuador, and Panama.
– President Abelardo de la Espriella declared a state of emergency for immediate relief operations.

Colombia among the countries most affected by earthquakes
– The main reason for frequent earthquakes in Colombia is its geographical location.
– The country lies in the earthquake- and volcano-prone region known as the ‘Ring of Fire’.
– Several major tectonic plates, such as the Nazca, Cocos, and South American plates, collide with one another here.
– One of these plates continuously subducts beneath another.
– Due to this, there is constant movement beneath the Earth’s surface, which often causes strong earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.

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11. Which sports federation was suspended by the Indian Sports Ministry citing management deficiencies as the reason?

a. Table Tennis Federation of India (TTFI)
b. All India Football Federation (AIFF)
c. Basketball Federation of India (BFI)
d. Athletics Federation of India (AFI)

Answer: a. Table Tennis Federation of India (TTFI)

– The Ministry issued the suspension order on 12 August 2026.
– According to the Ministry, one of the major reasons for suspending the recognition of TTFI was the failure to conduct federation elections within the stipulated time limit.
– A show-cause notice had already been issued in this matter.
– In February 2022, the Delhi High Court had suspended the Executive Committee of the federation.
– This action followed a petition filed by star player Manika Batra.
– She had raised questions regarding the selection policy.
– After suspending the recognition, the Ministry directed the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to form a committee to take over the administration of table tennis across the country.
– The suspension of the federation may make it difficult for players to participate in international tournaments.

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12. Which Union Territory of India has been awarded the hosting rights for the 2026 Irani Cup?

a. Ladakh
b. Jammu and Kashmir
c. Puducherry
d. Chandigarh

Answer: b. Jammu and Kashmir

– The Sher-e-Kashmir Stadium in Srinagar will host the Irani Cup match between 1 and 5 October 2026.
– This is considered the biggest cricket match to be held in Jammu and Kashmir since the 1980s.
– Jammu and Kashmir head coach Ajay Sharma said the match will be played between Ranji champions Jammu and Kashmir and Rest of India (RoI).
– Jammu and Kashmir were the winners of the 2025-26 Ranji Trophy.

Irani Cup
– It is India’s first-class cricket competition, organized by the BCCI.
– The match is played between the current Ranji Trophy winning team and the ‘Rest of India’ (India) team made up of the best players from other parts of the country.
– It is named after Z. R. Irani, a long-serving official of the BCCI.
– It is a five-day red-ball match.

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13. When is National Javelin Day celebrated?

a. 8 August
b. 7 August
c. 6 August
d. 5 August

Answer: b. 7 August

– This day is celebrated in honor of athlete Neeraj Chopra, who won India’s gold medal in the javelin throw event at the Tokyo Olympics 2020.
– On 7 August 2021, Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal in javelin throw.
– This day was declared as National Javelin Day by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
– Neeraj Chopra won a silver medal at the Paris Olympics 2024.

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14. When is Quit India Movement Day celebrated?

a. 6 August
b. 7 August
c. 8 August
d. 9 August

Answer: c. 8 August

– Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement against the British on 8 August 1942 during the session of the All India Congress Committee in Mumbai.
– The slogan “Do or Die” was given in the Quit India speech.
– This day is also known as August Movement or August Revolution.

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15. When is World Nagasaki Day?

a. 12 August
b. 11 August
c. 10 August
d. 9 August

Answer: d. 9 August

– On 9 August 1945, the United States dropped a bomb named ‘Fat Man’, containing 6.4 kg of Plutonium-239, on the southern Japanese port city of Nagasaki at 11:01.
– Earlier, on 6 August 1945, the United States had dropped a uranium bomb named ‘Little Boy’ on the Japanese city of Hiroshima.
– The explosion was so powerful that the glass panes of houses located 8 kilometers away were shattered.
– Approximately one hundred forty thousand people were killed as a result.
– When the plutonium atomic bomb was dropped on Nagasaki, it exploded 43 seconds later at a height of 1,540 feet above the ground.
– It produced an explosion equivalent to 21 kilotons of TNT.
– A heat of 3,900 degrees Celsius was generated.
– Wind speed reached up to 1005 km per hour.
– The estimated number of immediate deaths was between 40,000 and 75,000.
– By the end of 1945, this figure had reached 80,000.

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16. When is the International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples observed?

a. 6 August
b. 7 August
c. 8 August
d. 9 August

Answer: d. 9 August

– The International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples is observed every year on 9 August to encourage people around the world to spread the United Nations’ message on the protection and promotion of the rights of indigenous peoples.

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17. When is International Youth Day celebrated?

a. 14 August
b. 12 August
c. 17 August
d. 22 August

Answer: b. 12 August

2026 Theme
– Different Contexts, Common Aspirations.
– Different Contexts, Common Aspirations.

– International Youth Day is observed around the world on 12 August to focus on the development and protection of young people in society.
– This day was initiated by the United Nations General Assembly in December 1999.

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18. When is International Left-Handers Day celebrated?

a. 13 August
b. 12 August
c. 11 August
d. 10 August

Answer: a. 13 August

– International Left-Handers Day is celebrated every year on 13 August.
– It is observed to celebrate the uniqueness and differences of left-handed individuals.
– This day was first observed in 1976 by Dean R. Campbell, the founder of Left-handers International, Inc.